暇つぶし2chat MATH

- 暇つぶし2ch852:π1(X), and even more, in Remark 2.1 on page 14 he explains that my reading of the situation is a common misunderstanding. Even more, in Corollary 21.2 on page 47, he states something “well-known to everyone at RIMS” giving an explicit example of this phenomenon of non-isomorphic X’s giving rise to the same π1(X). With this appearing on arXiv, I was indeed quite confused ? did I in fact misunderstand this basic point all this time? If the above claims would have been true, I would see how Mochizuki’s strategy might have a nonzero chance of succeeding. But I was quite sure that in our discussions in Kyoto, Mochizuki agreed with me on that basic point; and the proof of Theorem 21.1 in that survey (of which Corollary 21.2 is indeed a corollary) was wrong. In any case, I emailed Joshi indicating my confusion, and he has since checked back with Mochizuki and retracted all of these claims (he told me a new version will be on arXiv soon). In particular, the fact “well-known to everyone at RIMS” is wrong, and in contradiction to this earlier correct anabelian theorem of Mochizuki. (引用終り) 以上