19/08/17 12:39:00.40 sbItYGIt.net
>>199 補足
・時枝さんの手法は、可測性が問題で、これを満たしている証明がない（＾＾；
（可測性を満たしていないから、証明はできないのだがｗｗ（＾＾ ）
おサル
I think it is ok, because the only probability measure we need is uniform probability on {0,1,…,N-1}
おれ（＾＾
but other people argue it's not ok, because we would need to define a measure on sequences,
（参考）
URLﾘﾝｸ(mathoverflow.net)
Probabilities in a riddle involving axiom of choice Dec 9 '13
(抜粋)
asked Dec 9 '13 at 16:16 Denis
I think it is ok, because the only probability measure we need is uniform probability on {0,1,…,N-1}, but other people argue it's not ok, because we would need to define a measure on sequences, and moreover axiom of choice messes everything up.