19/08/15 12:22:17.76 FaDqkhIK.net
>>856 補足
(>>820より)
おサル
I think it is ok, because the only probability measure we need is uniform probability on {0,1,…,N-1}
おれ
but other people argue it's not ok, because we would need to define a measure on sequences, and moreover axiom of choice messes everything up.
w(^^;
URLリンク(mathoverflow.net)
Probabilities in a riddle involving axiom of choice Dec 9 '13
(抜粋)
asked Dec 9 '13 at 16:16 Denis
I think it is ok, because the only probability measure we need is uniform probability on {0,1,…,N-1}, but other people argue it's not ok, because we would need to define a measure on sequences, and moreover axiom of choice messes everything up.